Tuesday 13 August 2002

A distinction with a difference: using words that have legal significance in their every day sense

There was recently a discussion on one of the boards I occasionally peruse (the High-tech.net group of SHRM) about whether or not a person who was yelled at regularly by their supervisor was a victim of a hostile environment. The original poster of the question, had replied, I think correctly, not necessarily.



My response, which didn't get posted due to a technical glitch was as follows:



I think part of the problem with this issue is the use of a term in its every day sense, without being sensitive to its legal meaning. Certainly working in an environment where a supervisor yells at you daily is clearly a hostile environment as defined in a dictionary (not offering a pleasant or sustaining environment). However, if the question is: is it a hostile work environment as prohibited by Title VII of the Civil Rights Act of 1964 and similar statutes?. The answer is no; unless it can be shown that the reason the supervisor is yelling is because of the employee's sex, race, age, disability or some other protected category.



Just because it is not actionable under a specific statute, does not necessarily mean that there may not be some way to bring a successful law suit. For example, if the conduct is severe enough, it might rise to the level of intentional infliction of emotional distress, or the tort of outrage as it is known in some states. A classic example is the case of the retired drill sergeant who should have been permanently retired. GTE Southwest, Inc. v. Bruce (Tex. 1998).



The confusion of every day words and legal terms would not normally make a difference as employers should make it clear that unpleasant working conditions, legal or not, will not be tolerated. However, it does make a difference when you are being sued and you wish to make the legal distinction.



One way that employers frequently hurt themselves is by using the legal term "sexual harassment" when the conduct, no doubt inappropriate, may not rise to a level that meets the legal standard, or at least the employer wants to make that argument. If in their documentation, the employer had used the term 'inappropriate conduct' or something similar, it would still clearly connotes that it was not acceptable, without passing judgment on whether it is legal or not. Without a flat statement that the conduct was sexual harassment, the employer would be in a much better position to argue that the conduct while not acceptable under the company's standards, was nevertheless not conduct for which it should be liable in damages.

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Nice comment !